Matt Teichman hosts a podcast, Elucidations, which features ~30 min interviews with philosophy professors about their work.
July 6, 2009
We want a theory of desire that can answer questions like, given a scenario and a desire, was that desire satisfied?
Notably, we are not asking whether a person with that desire was happy or not afterwards.
Satisfaction is whether or not that state is obtained
Challenging scenario for this view:
A man is rushing to catch a important train to NYC and boards at the last second, only to realize afterward that the train is heading to the wrong destination. Was his desire satisfied?
No - eliminitivist
We reject that the than man desired to get on the train to a wrong destination, because his ‘true’ desire involved to see the doctor in NYC, which is inconsistent with being on the wrong train.
Problem:
The doctor was going to tell him if his disease was curable, so what his ‘true’ desire is the cure, not the train to NYC (this can be done ad infinitum: his true desire is not the cure but rather health -> happiness -> ‘the good’).
I.e. the naive eliminitivist accidentally eliminates all desires other than the desire for ‘the good’.
Yes - separatist
Introduce another desire to make sense of why the man is upset despite the desire being satisfied. The ‘catch-this-train’ desire was satisfied, but ‘get to NYC’ that was not satisfied.
Problem
This account makes the desires seem separate/atomic, but why do they seem so intimiately connected to each other?
If he learned just before that it was going to the wrong destination, his desire to catch the (that) train would instantly vanish.
Makes desires in principle unconnected from what is good for us.
When you want anything, you want more than one thing, so it’s complicated to answer “did you get what you want”.
The man wanted to catch the train AND wanted to get to NYC, those are both aspects of his SINGLE desire.
There is a specific side and a general side to a desire
Object of desire (“catching this train”)
Aim - what makes the object appealing.
Conventional wisdom holds they are both representable merely as states of the world, although they have an complementary relationship
We want to update our belief state to match the world, want to update the world to match our belief state.
This picture is incomplete
Example: feel hungry, desire food.
It can’t be an accident that a bunch of seemingly related desires pop up (want a sandwich downstairs, want pasta from next door, …)
It doesn’t make sense that we desire things in a way that is not possible (want sandwich from Paris, from the moon)
Things make more sense when we break down the structure of a desire:
Object: sandwich from deli downstairs, sandwich
Aim: satisfy the hunger
These thoughts might inspire positive change in fields like economics, where people’s desires are taken to be “given in advance”
Their framework involves setting up a system that optimizes utility, given desires (as the fixed input data).
But rather the desires are adaptive to the world / how things are achieved.
Parents try don’t satisfy children’s desires because they don’t have the right desires. The desires are formed on the reflection of prior experience (knowing what to want, how to achieve it).
The story of the formation of the desire is required towards understanding what it means to satsify it.
Some problems stem from representating a human state of mind as a static object, whereas our beliefs aren’t constant w/r/t time spent in reflection.
Every desire can be chained iteratively until you reach “the good”, but almost never is that entire chain ‘in register’ for real human being. At instant t in time, we are cognizant of a finite number of steps along that chain (we implicitly accept some goals as final, even with more thought power we would view them as instrumental).
Therefore the eliminitivist is not susceptible to Collard’s criticism. Whether the man’s desire was satisfied would be dependent on his mental state while having the desire. If he did not invest enough effort into chaining the desire all the way to The Good, then it’s possible for the desire to be satisfied but the person not (and more likely the fewer links along the chain are ‘in register’).
Collard’s “object”/“aim” structure of a desire seems to be just considering two points along the chain - this is still more nuance than a one-point approximation, but it really is referring to a pair “naive desires” as a desire with bipartite structure.
It is a reasonable strategy to salvage the “separatist” POV by giving an account for the relation between different desired states of the world (they are not atomic anymore)
August 3, 2009
Clarification: “poetry” to Plato is more similar to what we call theatre (performative context).
Plato thought he innovated the distinction between style and content:
Distinguishing the story from the way the poet tells the story
E.g. style could vary between 3rd person, 1st person narration for the same story
The effect of being exposed to poetry: one tries to be many things, instead of one thing.
Background: Plato + Aristotle both believed a good human life is unified
A single goal, so you could say what it was about
(they happened to think the best goal was contemplation of eternal truths).
We share this intuition, though now we also praise people for having a variety of interests.
How can you be a mother and a working professional at once?
We would rather try to make the two identities compatible, rather than try to argue that people should be comfortable/adept at having multiple identities.
What is the distinction between unity and diversity:
A single person does many things (shoemaker has to cut leather, sew, negotiate, …) and these are all ways of expressing a single identity (illusory multiplicity).
Plato objects to the multiple identities.
Also note: Plato not opposed to all poetry, since he thinks it is valuable in early moral development as a form of play.
Rather, we should reform poetry to prevent it from encouraging multiplicity.
Example:
First you are Homer narrating, then you are Achilles, then you are Helen, etc.
We come to enjoy being many people by being exposed to this.
When you seek to be many things, you are no particular thing at all.
The single identity of ‘a poet’ is not a real identity.
Poets were master entertainers, aiming at producing pleasure
Pleasure should be a means to an aim (directs one towards satisfying one’s identity), but pleasure as the goal is not genuine (meaningless pleasure, which is our modern conception of pleasure)
For Plato, then, pleasures can be false, and poets do not provide genuine pleasure.
By aiming at appearances, the thing the poet aims for cannot serve as a genine telos.
A shoemaker does not have to constantly vary his output to stay satisfied, but the poet has to keep changing is stories to keep people interested, because his pleasure is fleeting / they’re not actually satisfying (only seeming to satisfy us).
The difference between going to the gym with the intention of becoming strong vs the intention of going to the gym just to feel like one is a gym person.
We have lots of fleeting/meaningless pleasure that is not actually satisfying (we have to keep varying things to keep interested). Was Plato predicting the emptiness of contemporary society and shallowness of popular culture?
Plato’s remedy is austere: the only goal capable of having the stability of unifying a life is pursuit of reason. (Not incompatible with modern conceptions of the good life, for theists or academic-minded people).
Plato offers valid criticism of entertainment and high culture, but he underestimates the value of certain kinds of play. He didn’t see that we play not at things we want to become, but also things we’re afraid of or want to learn about.
September 1, 2009.
Nietzsche means something different from ethics when using the term morality
He presents himself as a “critic of morality”
Although also talks about “higher moralities” as things he approves of, using the same German word.
Leitner distinguishes these senses by introducing the term “morality in the pejorative sense”
What characterizes the types of morality Nietzsche’s opposed to?
Has particular assumptions about human nature that Nietzsche takes to be false.
E.g. assuming there is “free/autonomous agency” of the sort Nietzsche thinks doesn’t exist.
Has certain normative content he doesn’t like (big disjunctive list)
Egalitarianism
High value on pity / altruism
Especially high value on happiness / low value on suffering
E.g. Nietzsche is a critic of utilitarianism, which might have some but not all of these features
Leitner calls Nietzsche a naturalist thinker about morality
Thinking of him in line with Hume and Freud, rather than the popular view of thinking of him as a precursor to postmodernism
“Naturalist” is a fraught term. Need to distinguish:
“substantive”
a certain ontological view (no ‘supernatural’ things exist)
“methodological”
an idea of how one does philosophy
There aren’t any distinctive philosophical practices, no difference in kind with other sciences (primarily psychology)
No reliance purely on a priori
Nietzsche is at least the latter. Calls himself the ‘first psychologist’
He is a ‘speculative methodological naturalist’ like Hume.
Same kind of structure of argument that is characteristic of Hume:
Take some class of beliefs (e.g. beliefs of morality)
Be skeptical that the beliefs can be rationally arrived at
Construct a psychological narrative for how we could have arrived at those beliefs / why they are attractive to human beings as they are.
E.g. in geneology of morals: how did the acetic ideal come to dominate the human mind / major religions.
How would Nietzsche. try to convince someone who believes in morality (in the pejorative sense)?
Leitner believes Nietzsche’s goal is not to get everyone to give up on morality.
“Herd morality for the herd”
There are different types of people
But there are (potential) creative geniuses like Goethe, Napoleon, Nietzsche himself, etc., whose flourishing is hindered by morality.
Lots of techniques to convince those people.
Nietzsche acknowledges that belief isn’t an entirely (or even mostly) rational deliberative process, so his methods of convincing are unusual compared to other philosophers.
Writes to ‘get you in the gut’ - is crude/rude/joking/hyperbolic.
“We don’t even notice the slave morality because it’s been victorious” He knows his readership isn’t even skeptical of morality, so he needs to be provokative to loosen them up / open them up to critical reflection.
Makes arguments
E.g. Naturalistic picture debunks common picture of human agency (his readership is becoming more committed to science, which allows him to draw up a tension)
But you can’t argue someone out of their morality, so rhetoric is important.
Nietzsche wants different moralities for different types of people, but maybe he’s implicitly arguing for a universal principle “what is good for people is good for their individual fluorishing as the type of person they are”
Distinguish two kinds of goodness
prudential goodness, what is good for an individual (e.g. their well-being)
moral goodness (all other types of goodness) (e.g. “morality in the pejorative sense ought be rejected because it prevents higher beings from flourishing”)
Nietzsche doesn’t believe these claims are ‘moral facts’ (he’s not a moral realist)
If a herd animal read Nietzsche’s book and understood it perfectly but reacted poorly (“but this criticism of herd morality isn’t good for the rest of of us”) … N would not think this person has made any error.
Nietzsche thinks it’s a matter of taste whether flourishing of higher beings is more important than well-being of the herd.
So he is not aiming for a universal principle that is in the best interest of everyone.
Leitner: I don’t think “analytic philosophy” exists, beyond some general stylistic concerns like attempting to be clear.
There is a current strand of moral philosophy intersecting with psychology that he would fit in with.
Nietzsche was a speculative naturalist, it’s possible that his beliefs that had empircal content are not psychological facts, but Leitner thinks after a century of psychological research that Nietzsche was right often.
E.g. he centred the role of the subconscious
Among the three dominant paradigms of moral psychology, Aristotle/Kant/Nietzsche, Nietzsche has the most plausible underlying assumptions given what we now know about psychology.
Personally sympathetic to anti-egalitarianism and reducing importance of agency by assigning strong roles to non-conscious factors.
Framing a philosophy in a non-universalizing way is
intellectually honest
easy to defend / hard to attack
suffers memetically (lacks a priori reason to convince anyone to adopt it) … so in some sense it cannot survive ‘at steady state’
October 1, 2009.
There has been historical precedent to place legal restrictions on human behavior due to disgust reaction
Rejection of something that is seen as a contaminant (useful in the context of feces, etc.). These are called the primary objects of disgust
In all societies, it gets extended in practice to groups of people seen as ‘low’/‘dirty’
extending the attributes of primary objects of disgust to these people, e.g. separate drinking fountains for blacks
Lord Devlin: a society needs to be able to defend itself against intrusion/defilement.
Justifies making things illegal even if they cause no harm to others
His rival: John Stuart Mill who said only harm to others should matter
More contemporarily, Leon Cass: disgust is a legitimate emotion which can sometimes guide us legitimately warn us of atrocity.
E.g. “torture” elicits disgust that rightly directs us away from it
When disgust is potent, we cannot rely on reasoning to give us respect.
Gays/Lesbians depicted as weirdos/animals
‘Torture’ also elicits indignation, which is a more constructive feeling towards righting the wrong of torture (concede that disgust happens to be right on this one)
That is wrong and it better not happen again
But maybe indignation may be argued to already be ‘getting too close’ - dignifying the abhorrent act with the status of “an act that is wrong” - maybe rejecting uncritically is the proper treatment?
“We won’t look at that at all” is evasion of moral confrontation.
Both have cognitive content and are falliable
Disgust’s validity limited to primary objects - which actually do pose a danger.
Juries to whom a murder is described in a more gory way are more likely to be harsher, even though this doesn’t always track how bad the homicide was / whether it was premeditated
Need to imagine the other as fully human like ourselves
Is this sufficient? Couldn’t a homophobe fairly imagine this but still conclude the other person is wrong?
Nussbaum: Certainly. Empathy is not sufficient for compassion.
perhaps not even necessary, e.g. compassion towards actual animals we cannot empathize with.
Should government be involved in marriage?
Marriage has three aspects:
Religious: state shouldn’t be involved (obviously)
Material: benefits given to certain relationships (civil unions sufficient)
Stuff in between: marriage is important because it signals some sort of societal approval of the act
Nussbaum doubts that this is really as true as proponents claim:
We don’t think of the state as supporting the N’th marriage of some celebrity
Extremely low bar in most states for being able to officiate a marriage
Civil unions analogous to transracial marriage:
People had to fight to not give this a different term since they truly believe it is equal
Three dimensions that get conflated:
Informational: the private is secret
Spatial: a private place, like the home
Decisional: what is private is yours to design
Example: pornography is legal, but only in your home. Or a court ruling that gay sex was legal unclear about whether it was merely because it was demonstrated in private that the homosexuality should be condoned.
Mill: self-regarding impact principle
What impact does this have on non-consenting strangers
Could recover our intuitions (the pornography has an impact on other people, acts in sex clubs that you have to voluntarily enter).
We should avoid the word ‘privacy’ because it’s such a nest of confusions.
- W/r/t torture + disgust + indignation:
- Agree that indignation comes off as more constructive than disgust, though is disgust an essential / primary cause for the indignation? Who is indigant about torture but not disgusted by it?
- Agree disgust is valid when it directs us away from danger
- Though Nussbaum's opponents are claiming homosexuality is a (societal) danger (for which disgust is just one piece of 'evidence'), so it's deflecting the main argument.
- A couple examples of disgust getting it wrong not convincing.
- Could come up with examples of indignation getting it wrong according to Nussbaum herself.
- Hypothetical: suppose Native Americans were disgusted by European settlers and were motivated to unify and reject the invasion. Wouldn't this have saved their society? Was a (counterfactual) stronger disgust reaction the only plausible hope for this happening?
- Is not eliciting disgust in nonconsenting strangers bad by Mill's principle? Couldn't there exist a country whose population is so vicerally disgusted by homosexuality that, in that country, it truly is wrong to have gay marriage? (e.g. Islamic country)
November 2, 2009.
What is interesting about perception for philosophers (distinct from biologists/neuroscientists)?
Perception has necessary role within analysis of certain concepts
Empirical facts about perception may be useful, and the physical theories of perception need not be challenged
E.g. gestalt psychology could be important to phenomonology
Notion of ‘perceptual features’. Empirical question:
Is it that to perceive is, essentially, to perceive objects? Every perception is a perception of something?
alternatively, we could also perceive ‘features’, too
More generally, is perception uniform or is there a richness/complexity of kind in the types of perception? This could influence philosophers who need to discuss the uses of perception.
In some sense, this is just a boring/trivial question about the grammar of perception.
Interesting empirical question: what is the privileged form of perceputal sensations - how far are we (always) breaking down sense data into objects? What physical mechanism does this?
Philosophy should disentangle confusions that arise out of the natural usage of the term.
An enduring example confusion:
Tendancy to approach problems in perception from a theory of knowledge.
How much do we know given our perceptions?
How does the knowledge from perceptions interact with other sources of knowledge?
This is often a confusion
(though may make sense in certain contexts, e.g. wondering if I’ve seen you before in the street)
It makes us wrongly think of the essence of perception as being in contact / direct relation with the world, as a means of getting knowledge.
This is a category error
Epistemologists are not actually dealing with perception, rather something derived from perception
Seeing something far away might be misleading
Two people could perceive the same phenomenon differently for various reasons
It’s a mistake of philosophers to lift this to questioning perception in general, questioning whether we ever could be in contact with the real world.
Raw data (waves/beams) impinge upon us, our minds make sense of this
Optics / biology outside domain of philosophy.
Then philosophy asks the trancendental question “how is it possible for us to access the outside world?”
From what point of view is this question being asked?
“Contact” is a better word than “access” because the fact that we (in the world) are in contact with the world is obvious and nullifies the philosophical question.
This question is a symptom of philosophy since Descartes, implies one has already gone astray from understanding what perception is.
Benoist would respond to a Cartesian skeptic differently; rather, would reject the question as ill-founded because the fact we are in contact with the world is presupposed before asking more abstract/higher order questions.
The fact that Descartes creates this artificial question leads him to the artificial separation of the physical and spiritual world. Both artificialities are related.
It’s fundamental to perception that it’s not possible to ‘take distance’ from perception
(yes, epistemlogically, but that is really treating the uses of perceptions).
It’s legitimate inquiry into the role of perception among other aspects of reasoning, but it is not about perception itself.
How does belief in raw contact with the world explain different observers observing the same thing differently?
E.g. “jaundiced eye” seeing the world with yellow tint
Benoist: perception is clearly dependent on where you are
The fact it is perspectival does not take away from the fact we are in direct contact
However we also have different faculties which cause differences beyond geometry (diseases, enhancements).
The yellow of jaundiced eye is just as much a reality and fact of perception as seeing a stick broken in the water.
There is a temptation to think when our perspective has dramatically affected the experience of some aspect of reality (stick), that it’s no longer the stick which we are perceiving
(even though it is the stick, even if it looks different than how we’re used to it - it’s just the reality of optics that viewed a certain way the experience of a stick is broken)
JL Austin: does anyone expect a stick, if it’s actually straight, has to appear to be straight under all circumstances?
It is wrong of philosophers to conclude from examples like this that our subjectivity is in between us and contact with reality.
Our subjectivity is just us being ourselves as we are in relation to the reality.
Subjectivity just captures the factors of perception which are dependent on the perceiver’s location/faculties
Subjectivity is just one aspect of the reality of perception (direct contact with the world).
December 1, 2009.
It’s an alternative source of evidence towards philosophical theses. - It’s not always meant to undermine traditional (armchair / mathematical) philosophy.
Philosphers use “our intuitions” as evidence for a compatibilist view
Among all our externally determined actions, they need to identify a subset of them as “free” - meaning things for which people can be credited/praised/blamed for.
Our concept of “freedom” is compatible with our concept of “externally caused”
To demonstrate this, they use a thought experiment, but empirically we find that the result of that experiment by varying trivial details - calls into doubt whether the thought experiment was only convincing to a biased group of people.
We tend to believe people can be held accountable when the stakes are higher (the thought experiment example action is trivial => people conclude determinism, the action is something heinous => people conclude compatibilism)
Why do we care what laypeople think over professional philosophers? Are philosophers biased away from the truth? Aren’t we learning about what people say rather than what really is? 1. We’re supplementing traditional philosophy - we want to show philosophical conclusions are not at odds with reality (we at least need an account in light of the evidence, e.g., above) 2. Laypeople lack prior theoretical commitments to bias them. 3. A general psychological investigation into how we draw conclusions from evidence (what biases are at play when we go data -> theory) is precisely what philosophy has always done. - We can learn how to do philosophy better by understanding, e.g., that we are likely to draw certain conclusions given our human desire to punish. - Some of our theories are an expression of current cultural identity rather than universal truth
This is in line with Nietzsche’s geneology of morality, which leads to severe relativism. Is this a natural consequence?
Experimental philosophy is neutral - people disagreeing about morality is evidence for our knowledge of morality rather than evidence for it being relative
Arguments about morality that are based on people sharing intuitions however could be invalidated/validated based on the evidence.
Utilitarians may have conclusions that can be demonstrably against layperson ethical intuitions, but they can have independent arguments for why they are still right and our intuitions are wrong.
Do we have faculties that trancend experience?
Empiricists see a continuity between what we observe and how we reason
Hume argues that we “think in pictures” and arrives at this conclusion by personal reflection.
Rationalists like Descartes says we can conceive of distinct figures of 1000 vs 999 sides, even if they are visually indistinguishable.
This point could be resolved by traditional psychology.
January 4, 2010.
Something is not acceptable because it is ‘not natural’.
This has counterexamples in both dimensions (good things - e.g. medicine - that are unnatural)
More sophisticated version: something that comes out of evolution is good
Good for survival is not the same as good in the ethical sense, even if the origins of our ethical norms came out of some competitive advantage it gave early humans.
What is good is indexed to the kind of thing one naturally is - We should always ask the question “is X good for Y” (rather than simply “Is X good?”) - “What is good for a plant is not good for what is good for a human”
It is still desirable to appeal to “Good simpliciter”. which is not of the form “Good for X”.
“What’s good for the Russian mafia is not good (simpliciter)”
Could argue the latter good is talking about “good for general community”
It is intelligible to ask “can we improve our natures?”
Difficult to appeal to our natures to explain how change our nature
We might actually be imagining some portion of our nature being fixed while varying a small part.
Evolutionary theory says natures change over time. So what is one appealing to?
You can take a ‘snapshot’ of a couple generations
We have an easy route to relieve ‘tension’ on the word “good” by adding an extra degree of freedom to it (what would otherwise a contradiction is no longer once I create multiple “kinds of goods”.
This gives you too many degrees of freedom - everything is good for some purpose for some kind of being, and we now need to prevent this from being abused by finding a principled reason for limiting whaat kinds of good are important in ethical normative judgments (“sure, you’re ‘good’ in some sense, but I will judge you”).
Seems like some form of “good (simpliciter)” can build in enough flexibility to account for all of the specific kinds of good (and any ‘global’ things too). When someone talks about “good for X” they are restricting our focus to a subset of the overall logic that is relevant for X, which could be useful since it’s a much simpler concept to worry about.
To claim there is no “good simpliciter” is to say that you can partition the logic of “good simpliciter” into the relevant subclasses (then by occams razor, the global good is not conceptually necessary).
February 12, 2010
Study of traits shaped by natural selection
No formal distinction from evolutionary biology
Example psychological traits/behaviors: jealousy, homicide, male promiscuity
What was its evolutionary function of jealousy? (studied by Bus)
Mate-guarding behavior. If you spend lots of resources/time on offspring, you want to make sure they’re yours.
Observed in primates standing in front of their mates and chasing off all other suitors
How to validate this hypothesis?
There are two claims to be tested empircally :
The existance of jealous mental states caused people to leave more offspring
Those offspring inherited the tendency to have jealous mental states
Couldn’t you just make up a narrative for any trait? - It is fair to accuse EP of making ‘just so’ plausible stories. - Though unfair to say there is anything wrong with that, even if it can be used to justify any conclusion. - Hypotheses (in general) have this feature as well. - We could’ve come up with a hypothesis for why the sky is black. - EP has been unfairly criticized for ‘just so’ stories when they are widespread in science. - However need to be careful to resist seduction of hearing a ‘just so’ story and think that the hypothesis is confirmed. - Admits that EP are more likely to succumb to this seduction over other fields - The narrative ought just the beginning of a research programme to verify it.
Can’t do tests on humans (ethical reasons, lifespan too long to measure reproductive success)
Mental states do not leave fossils
Need to make claims about proto-humans.
There is tendancy of (moral/political/mind) philosphers to bring in evolution as a skyhook for their theories
It’s not usually a core argument, but it’s used as support
They usually not good support because EP is almost never empirical
Furthermore, lots of evidence of evolutionary selected features that are selected for ‘arbitrary’ reasons, unrelated to flourishing
E.g. female preferring mate to have a particular spot pattern/chirp just due to ‘how they’re wired’ / randomness
So evolutionary fitness of a moral trait is not a good supporting argument by itself
March 4, 2010.
What are examples of metaphor?
Need to be careful to not use
‘dead metaphors’
idioms
“bit the dust” / “went west” / “bought the farm” -> die
Metaphors are devices for saying something and using something else
There are two lines of questions:
Technical ones in the philosophy of language (e.g. Joseph Stern)
Aesthetic questions (this is what Ted is interested in)
Metaphors are small-scale works of art
you need imaginative capacity to make/understand one
Art: the thing we do that we don’t need to do
it’s the place human’s exhibit their freedom
Once you understand a statement as ironic, it’s not hard to figure out what it means.
Could recognize something as a not-literal metaphor but then be puzzled about what it means
Try reading Wallace Stevens poetry as an example
Song of Solomon in the bible actually about sex, though you could read it without realizing that.
Is it possible to say what a metaphor says literally? Is this committing the ‘heresy of paraphrase’?
The question was confused. Metaphors aren’t reducible to similes which have a straightforward content. (“juliet is the sun” is not “juliet is like the sun”)
The simile is not true, there’s no relevant property shared by juliet and the sun that romeo means.
Inverse: “My love is like a red, red rose” why not “My life is a red, red rose”?
These questions are addressed by Joseph Stern, from analysis of the context.
In using a metaphor you will do something you couldn’t do otherwise, harder to say if you will say something you couldn’t do otherwise
Poetry is often the desire to compress a language and squeeze out all you can get
Can you translate poetry?
Of course.
Czech poet, Anschel, makes his name easier one day as Ansel, then much later writes under anagram “Selam”. Has a poem “Death Fugue” which begins “Der Tod ist ein Meister aus Deustchland”
Should be translated “Death is a Meister from Germany” because no subtitutee would work for Meister.
Romans made very few advances in mathematics, possibly because their notation was so bad.
Representation makes a big difference in our ability to imagine
This may be analogous to poetry which represents concepts in a way that prose may not be able to.
We must be free, but if we’re free then there’s chaos and we end up not free, so the solution is a self-imposed constraint.
Related vaguely.
Interpreting metaphors in the same way seen as a means of connecting with other people (meaningful because it is falliable)
Wittgenstein in PI: “Sometimes people we cannot find our feet with them”
If you tell a joke that someone laughs at, you find youself in that person. Gratifying.
If you tell a joke that someone doesn’t laugh at, we react poorly, like something has gone wrong.
Irony/metaphors/jokes. All ways we live within but break rules. They help us get in touch with our freedom.
Are inappropriate/offensive jokes similar in how they work to normal jokes? Or has something gone wrong?
Cohen: they’re the same. Learning to not say telling offensive jokes is akin to learning to not pinch a stranger or roughhouse with someone who doesn’t want to.
Double infliction: they don’t like it, then you say they don’t have a sense of humor (it’s their fault for not finding it funny)
They don’t need a justification to not find it funny.
No moral theories could account for why it’s not ok for a stranger to say “I don’t like it when you cross your legs” but ok to say “Your music is too loud”. It’s something to be negotiated - you won’t learn it studying moral philosophy. The layperson is equally or more qualified than the philosopher at these practical questions.
No bearing on the functioning of the joke among people who find it funny.
Would need some account of it being harmful, that it perpetuates or creates harmful stereotypes has not been convincingly shown
The fact that a stereotype isn’t true is not a mark against the joke (a joke is always a small fiction)
“Not everything you don’t like is immoral”
April 5, 2010
Distinction: good (absolutely) vs good for something vs good
E.g. It’s good to be kind, it’s good for me to study math, that’s a good car
British 20th centurary moral philosophers like GE Moore don’t like “good for X” wanting a morality that is not egoistic, instead trying to frame in terms of absolute good.
These theories overlooked possible justifications which use “good for” but are not egoistic.
Absolute good is a much more abstract / questionable concept, so it would be nice to frame ethics without it if possible.
These may be different (absolute good is incoherent, but not absolute bad) but Kraut needs neither.
It’s coherent to say “pain is bad”, but we also say “it’s bad for me to feel pain”. What more is gained by using absolute language?
What about cruelty/cowardice?
Again we can show that these things are bad because they are bad for people.
Does this point of view lead to egoism, e.g. good/bad being instrumental to what we want?
Mistake to conflate “good for me” as “what I want” or “good for some end I want”.
There are objective truths of what is good for certain types of beings, even if we’re ignorant.
There are differences and similarities for what is good for different people/species.
Cannot apply same formula to each case.
What problems does thinking about morality in terms of absolute good have?
It’s not necessarily bad. But it could be used to justify something that is bad for everybody.
Argument against euthansisa: life itself is good (would not be sufficient if Kraut’s thesis is accepted)
E.g. good for A to be loud, good for B to be in quiet environment
We should organize political institutions to avoid needless conflict.
The concept of justice is needed to resolve these cases.
“Absolute Good” not needed
We can frame some instances of absolute good/bad in terms of good for, but the interesting question is can this be done for all uses?
if absolute bad exists, then it does seem possible that an institituion/relationship is good for everyone involved but still is bad (or vice versa). E.g. euthansia.
Kraut’s grammar of moral terms should not alter this fact.
May 7, 2010.
Wittgenstein opens PI Augustine’s picture:
Common sense description: words name objects, sentences are combinations of such names
Every word has a correlated meaning which is the object for which the word stands.
Problem: what object does the word ‘and’ stand for?
Standard thought is this picture is the main object of criticism of PI
Gustafsson thinks this is making too much philosophy out of the Augustinian picture.
(in fact, Augstine himself doesn’t subscribe to the philosophical implications commonly attributed to the passage)
This simple picture is attractive and can be applied in good ways or bad ways.
Pictures for Wittgenstein operate on a primative level, can’t say they’re right or wrong.
Wittgenstein in Foundations of Mathematics: “We don’t judge the picture but we judge by means of the picture.”
They are prototheories / paradigms that are bad if cut from their useful applications.
e.g. Start looking for the correlate of the word red, postulate Platonic forms and get philosophical confusion
Cannot be argued against because counterexamples can be absorbed by a picture, which can be elaborated upon
The closer the picture is to a fully fleshed out theory, the harder (more artificial-seeming) this becomes.
If Wittgenstein is not strictly criticizing Augustine, is he at least criticizing Plato?
Wittgenstein quotes Theatetus picture of language: Socrates is presenting something he has heard and he concludes we don’t really understand it.
Wittgenstein considers himself in a common struggle with Plato and Augustine. He is attracted by these pictures but is trying to overcome them, just like Plato and Augustine.
If Wittgenstein is documenting his personal struggles, then what philosophical value is there? Is it just of autobiographical interest?
There are many levels of PI - he provides arguments and uncovers paradoxes.
Is he merely providing more details to the pictures in order to try to avoid the counterexamples/paradoxes? Is he trying to get rid of pictures altogether? Experts are divided.
Some say ‘meaning as use’ is a picture, one he thinks is less harmful than augustinian view
He doesn’t really want to construct theories, but rather wants philosophical peace / quietism.
thinking as something that goes on inside your head
regarding infinity as merely something very large
June 3, 2010.
Contexualism concerns the truth of an utterance of depending on factors outside of the statement itself.
There is a spectrum of statements one can acknowledge as contexual:
At one extreme, statements like “I am cold”
The truth is obviously contexually dependent on the speaker of the utterance.
Mary wins $1 million in lottery
Deedee says that Mary is rich now
Naomi (who is wealthier) says “No, Mary is not rich.”
We want to say Deedee and Naomi are both speaking “truth” and need an account.
Relevant contextual parameter: the standard of wealth according to the speaker.
Contextualist says: because the conversational standards for deploying “rich” vary among Deedee’s community and Naomi’s community, the truth conditions of their utterances should also vary.
The bank case:
On Friday, a man and his wife go to the bank and see a long line. The man says “Oh well we can go tomorrow” and asked how he knows, he says “I was here last Saturday and they were open.”
Alternate scenario, it’s really impt that they deposit their check. He is asked “how do you really know? Maybe they changed their hours.” and he updates “You know, you’re right, I don’t know.”
Contextualist wants to say “I know X” and “I don’t know X” were both truthful utterances with no change in world state (but rather, what changed was the context-dependent truth conditions)
Epistemological contextualists claim that the standard for knowing X is dependent on what doubts have been raised in a conversation (the doubts become ‘live’). Skepticism is addressed because we can hand the skeptic a victory in their ivory tower (you are right that we don’t know anything) while denying the skeptic the right to challenge an ordinary person living their life claiming to know many things.
Counterpoint: why were hyperbolic doubts even raised? Actually, the skeptics were concerned with ordinary claims of knowing.
Contextualists could be said to be using some motivated reasoning to insulate ordinary belief from what goes on in the phil seminar room.
A more radical example is Pia and the maple tree.
The spectrum could be said to correspond to a belief in a ‘core/unchanging’ content of a word/sentence (meaning that is purely based on the definitions of the words) and people arguing how big that core should be. - “The cat is on the mat” - which cat may change on context, etc. but there is something unchanging; we cannot mean “The dog is in the air.” - Those who disagree have to explain how do we understand each other at all. - Some radical contextualists don’t say that for all X Y, X can mean Y. But just that forall utterances X, there is an indefinite number of meanings that are consistent with that utterance (there are also an indefinite number of meanings that are inconsistent.
The principle: that there is a kind of content of an utterance which is tied to the point of the utterance (which is tied to motivations/expectations of conversational participants).
This is an underlying assumption of many contextualist arguments.
The point of Naomi’s utterance is different (to relate Mary’s wealth to the standards of wealth in her world).
Unfounded: context principle justifies tying the truth conditions to points/interest/conversational standards.
Counterexample: wealthy people who say they themselves aren’t wealthy - it is in their interests to not seem wealthy (to avoid legislation, to seem like a salt-of-earth person). Perhaps their use of the word is serving those desires.
The truth conditions ought to float free of the ‘local discourse’ if the argument actually concerns disputed territory. If Deedee/Naomi agree that the rich ought pay a special tax, then it is crucial to have a notion of ‘rich’ that is dictated by a larger discourse which includes both participants (the larger community agrees with Deedee in this case, so Naomi’s claim can be called false even if it matches her local community’s use of the word).
Contextualists acknowledge that interests/focus of attention vary among people but do not pay special attention to what those interests are - harsh charge but evidence by the fact that most contextualists are not methadological contextualists
(Wittgenstein was a methodological contextualist).
The ‘freighted terms’ which philosophers are most often interested in seem to more likely be the cases like ‘wealth’ where we do not want to let people’s biases dictate the correctness of their word usage.
July 9, 2010.
A formal theory characterizing various ways to combine individual beliefs into collective beliefs
What could it mean for a group to have beliefs over and above the beliefs of the individuals?
We ascribe beliefs in order to interpret actions/decisions based on reasons
Groups act and make decisions based on reasons, so it seems reasonable to think that we can ascribe beliefs to groups
The group beliefs are uniquely determined by the individuals’ beliefs, but it may not be identical to any of the individuals.
Example: condo asssociation where 50% believe \(A\) and 50% not \(A\). Maybe it’s reasonable to ascribe an indeterminate belief towards \(A\), but none of the individuals is indeterminate.
This is important because we want to know how we should revise our beliefs due to a group testimony.
What if we say the ‘group believes’ what the majority of the group believes? - Problem: majorities are not consistent over multiple beliefs IF the beliefs are logically connected. - 51% of people believe \(P\), 51% believe \(Q\), 1% believe \(P\land Q\). - Under this proposal, the majority has inconsistent beliefs (and therefore believes everything) - Real example: - German politicians voted on the the three propositions: - Should Berlin or Bohn be the capital? - Should the parliament be in Berlin or Bohn? - Should the capital be where parliament is?
Supermajority:
If you construct threshold carefully enough, you can guarantee consistency
With \(P\land Q\) example, you need 2/3.
Determine ahead of time, determine what are most important (logically independent) propositions, use inference to determine the rest of propositions.
Research in the field isn’t really about finding specific alternatives:
Actual goal: formalize the desiderata and find out which sets of constraints are compatible with each other.
Mathematically provable that we can’t satisfy a bunch of desiderata simultaneously.
However, one particular constraint both causes a lot of problems and really isn’t that justified: the independence constraint
The collective belief on a particular proposition is uniquely determined by opinions of the members of the group on that belief alone.
Our intuitive sense of collective belief is sensitive to the reasons for belief.
Example:
Two panels: all believe that government and parliament should be in same city, also all believe it should be in Berlin. Other is split on which city things should be on, but all believe it should be in same city.
Independence would say that both panels agree ‘equally’ on whether government+parliament should be in same city.
Intuitively we know that the second group has undermining/inconsistent reasons for their agreed-upon belief, so their aggregate belief should be strictly weaker than first panel.
Independence is usually involved in the unsatisfiable subsets of constraints.
In practice, we recognize different judgment aggregation strategies are appropriate in different scenarios
But this isn’t a satisfying resolution in itself; we need to better understand what makes certain desiderata appropriate for a given situation.
August 2, 2010.
Example: I know there is a table in front of me (both sides agree: if I know anything, I at least know that)
Skeptic rejects that, and therefore rejects that you know anything
Many different skeptical arguments, often of the form “There exists a scenario in which you are having the same phenomenological experience yet there is no table, so how can you know whether you are in that scenario vs the genuine experience scenario?”
Examples: dreaming, evil genius, brain in vat (Putnam)
Logical priority of conventional methods of determining thoughts over brain scanner
There is a causal dependence between brain activity and experience, but it is a leap to suggest that we can identify brain activity with experience.
Even if we found an incredible empirical correlation between brain activity and experience, if we suddenly had a conflict one day (brain scanner says that the subject thinks he’s drinking coffee, but we see him eating ice cream and he assures us he knows/believes he is eating ice cream), then we would conclude the brain scanner is wrong, not the
What it means to be a thought is not the same thing as what it means to be a brain state
Brain states connected by casual relationships. Cannot be ‘correct’ or incorrect.
Mental states occupy the space of reasons - the meaning of certain thought is identified by its relationships to other thoughts. Structured by normative relationships (can be correct or incorrect).
If brain scanner with amazing correlation says that someone is telling a lie by analyzing brain states, they may be lying 100% of the time that brain scanner says they’re lying, but it is not the brain state itself that makes them lying or not.
Drawing from thoughts of John MacDowell (“Mind and World”)
For a thought to be ‘about’ an object (world-directed, with empirical content) - it’s necessary that the correctness of the thought to be answerable to how things are.
For an intention to be an intention - it has to determine the correctness/incorrectness of some subsequent action.
A brain is not logically answerable to reality and is not overtly acting in the world, so it’s not fair to say it has thoughts or intentions.
This is not a general anti-skeptic argument, but other skeptical tactics might be addressable by similar reasoning.
Thus, Edward is proposing bottom up anti-skepticism, rather than some top-down “reason for knowing that the table is there”
Stanley Cavell has written well about how skeptical lines of thought arise naturally (i.e. they are not purely the product of academic philosophy).
Skepticism shows up in lots of fields/subfields of philosophy, and it’s important to prevent the confusion that arises here from spreading. (e.g. brain scanner is relevant in legal topics)
(written in 2018) - 1A: Logical priority of conventional methods of determining thoughts over brain scanner - Is this related to the fact that the brain scanner is purely correlation, rather than based on some fundamental theory? - If we had a more fundamental theory that the brain scanner’s workings fit in with (e.g. quantum mechanics), then we would be more likely to embrace the absurd scenario of the subject being insane (and/or we failed to identify his environment) rather than saying quantum mechanics is wrong. - Surely there are historical examples where X is a ground for some technique Y, but for various reasons eventually Y becomes ground for X? - Logically-prior = closer to the ‘center’ of the web-of-beliefs. - Furthermore, this example only works if it is possible that there is a conflict (in the world where there is perfect correlation, then we can identify brain activity with thoughts) - 1B: “To be a brain state is one kind of thing, to have a thought is a different kind of thing” - This is a good point towards saying they are not ‘literally’ identical, in the sense of “My dad’s wife” and “My mom” being literally ‘different’ (they have different truth conditions) but may be equivalent given some state of affairs. - This is perhaps sufficient to say “no reason to think brains in vats can think” … but at least it’s sufficient for “there is a reason to think brains in vats cannot think”. - What this argument does not show (which maybe Ed is advocating) is that it is incoherent to identify brain states with mental states. If we can identify them, then they both are both kinds of things and there are no - There may be an isomorphism between the “logical space of reasons” and the space of brain states related by physical causality. - If brain states (and their relations) were in bijective corrspondance to thoughts, then we can refer to a brain state by its thought and vice versa. Whether or not this is the case is precisely the debate at hand, but bringing this point up does not advance the argument one way or another. - How to decide whether to believe such an isomorphism likely exists is complicated. - 2: - The belief that there is a table in front of me (even in brain-in-vat scenario) IS answerable to reality (and the the belief is false). Likewise for intentions (the intention will be unfulfilled, unless one is desiring to be a brain in a vat) - How does this bear on the legality of killing comatose people (they are in an analogous situation)
September 8, 2010.
Why protect religious conscience, over and above other forms of moral conscience?
Historically, lots of religious intolerance have led to atrocities.
What’s distinctive of religious belief (not merely theistic religions)? Two characteristics:
There are certain beliefs that are insulated from ordinary standards of reasons and evidence.
This is trying to cache out “faith”
There are certain obligations that are demanded of a believer.
This is why religion comes in conflict with the law, so the need for practices
Potential counterexamples:
Not let in enough: Christian apologists willing to argue/defend Christiantity based on normal standards of evidence.
It’s true there exist intellectualist traditions within religious thought.
Most believers want their beliefs insulated
These are beliefs that are post-hoc rationalizations
Could say these are not religious hypotheses, although they deployed to support religion.
Let in too much: secular people have opinions about the meaning of life that are not subject to reason/evidence. E.g. John Lennon thinks we should give peace a chance, I’m commanded to not go to war.
Whether you think moral views are insulated from reasons/evidence depends on deeper metaphysical views.
Naturalistic moral realist: morality is just like science, so it is answerable to reasons and evidence
Noncognitivist: moral beliefs are actually expressing emotions, so not applicable to rule 1.
Neither of the distinctive characteristics are related to the standard arguments for tolerating religion.
Utilitarian and Rawlsian arguments justify protecting liberty of conscience but would not single out religion.
Nussbaum - doesn’t religion deserve more than toleration, e.g. respect:
Mere toleration: you disapprove but you have to put up with them.
Respect is ambiguous:
recognition respect: “you ought to respect his feelings”
respect for people in virtue of them being people
appraisal respect: “I respect her intellect”
admiration
People conflate 1 (which is uncontroversially owed to strangers), but bait-and-switch with meaning 2.
Nussbaum’s example: Roger Williams founded Rhode Island and discovered the native americans were more similar than he expected.
This still doesn’t justify appraisal respect.
Extend the practice of appealing for an exemption from a law to all matters of conscience.
Worrisome that courts will now have to judge whether matters truly are of conscience.
It’s easier to figure out if 1.) someone is a member of a religion, 2.) if a religion demands a certain behavior rather than to figure out if a person is being genuine.
Maybe pragmatic reasons for status quo, but not moral reasons.
October 6, 2010.
“Completing” the contract theory of justice started by Hobbes, developed by Locke / Rousseau / Kant.
Most influential modern political philosopher.
Most theories are contractural but not Sen’s.
Don’t think pursuit of justice involves looking for the perfectly just world.
Issues of injustice:
people who need medicine that can be cheaply produced
children not being educaiton
tons of other ways. Addressing these individually won’t create a perfectly just world
We can aspire to a perfectly just institution without guaranteeing a perfectly just world
The latter also depends on people’s behavior/natures.
E.g. if people are incorruptable, then more socially trusting institutions become feasible.
Seeking a perfect world will not help us rank all of the imperfect worlds we have as more promixate options.
Neither necessary nor sufficient to have a particular target.
Do we have no basis for saying something is unjust?
Example: you’re in a sauna and the temperature keeps going up. Once you feel in danger, you try to leave but the door is locked. Someone outside sees but can’t open the door either. But he does have access to the temperature control. You ask him to lower and he says “what is the ideal temperature you want” which you don’t know. He could object that without a principled goal, all there is arbitrary gut reaction (the point: gut reaction is important)
There are many kinds of justice, not a single scale:
Liberty, fairness, reducing inequality, removing poverty
For Rawls, these all matter but he strictly orders them in importance like above
More natural to trade off, like a small concession in liberty could be worth a huge reduction in poverty
Concern of advocating societal change without a goal: - E.g. “reduce inequality”, but if there is no stopping point, then this could head towards a situation worse than the current one (even if the current one has too much inequality).
November 8, 2010.
Action at a distance
E.g. Gravity/EM, something in one place can affect something far away without anything passing in between
Trying to explain how a magic trick (making a match levitate) works. 1. The magician has the power to make things levitate with their mind
This would be disturbing because it can’t be generalized / doesn’t fit into a universal scientific model
The magician has magnets in the walls and controls them with a small computer
Would alleviate the disturbance.
The magician can send out ‘levitator particles’ from the eyes. There’s a ‘levitator particle’ detector which is triggered, shows they have energy and can do work.
Would also alleviate the concern, the particles would become the new normal, a feature of the world.
Action at a distance would be like having no such explanation (though there is regularity/predictability).
Fear: if we allow action at a distance, then anything is permitted anywhere
Billiard ball motion could be determined by huge (far away) bodies of motion rather than anything local.
in 17th century, “mechanistic philosophy” (e.g. Boyle)
All explanations should be given by just matter and motion
Magnets thought to emit something similar to levitator particles
in 19th century, get the development of a field.
Newton’s gravity is action at a distance is already well-established
action at a distance now tolerated widely
Faraday/Maxwell are able to reform E&M that doesn’t require action at a distance, have nothing to say about gravity.
Einstein then gets rid of it for gravity
Einstein has methodological complaint. Science is impossible if objects aren’t independent of each other.
Leibniz Principle of Sufficient Reason: for everything that happens, there is a reason why it (in particular) happened.
Paramenides: nothing comes from nothing (apple comes from the tree, apple’s redness came from the seed (DNA))
Change is impossible follows from this
In some sense, something coming from nothing would violate the principle of sufficient reason.
Many arguments for and against.
Philosophically, one must have a framework to do science.
P.S.R. is really hard to do without.
There were never historically people who lamented loss of action at a distance when an equally predictive theory becomes available.
December 6, 2010.
This concerns the pragmatics of language
Social identities are skills, being a professor/parent is like dribbling a basketball
“Calls”
Say “Yo, Matt!” to someone in the street. Have recognized Matt as a social partner but also demands Matt recognize me.
“Performative” Difference between judge saying “the meeting is adjourned” vs someone outside looking in who tells someone “the meeting is adjourned”
“Order”
Unlike a call, it is an asymmetric speech action.
Responding acknowledges the power gradient.
Distinct from requests and treaties
If students respond to roll call, they are jointly bringing into being the roles of “teacher” and “student”
Gendered/Racial
We recognize demographics in certain ways.
Data shows people talk to male babies different from female babies
Data shows teachers let male students talk for longer before interrupting (even filtering for female Womens’ Studies profs)
You can refuse the way someone engages you, but is a tricky negotiation.
There’s no way to stay neutral - either have to be aggressive or passive (accept the role you don’t want to be placed in) .
A call can be responded to appropriately or inapprorpiate - placing someone in a role puts them in a normative role.
Example: school system in DC
Nominally egalitarian, however:
Good schools are in rich neighborhoods (issues with transportation)
Complicated application / interview process
Some identities seem chosen vs not
Not exactly a clear line (one chooses to work at a sweatshop, but the alternative was starving)
Big normative implications for roles that are perceived as a choice
The point of analyzing these social roles is to see where it’s possible to intervene
Certain problems are only addressible by social organizers
We can be more aware of how these roles affect our lives
A project of political liberation.
What’s a good reason to resist a social role?
No general answers - just good reasons for doing anything. E.g. freedom, prevention of human fluorishing.
January 12, 2011.
Information given to us via testimony vs sense experience
There are many situations where we trust and others where we distrust
Need to be able to benefit from communication with others.
Reductionist: Must have a reason to trust.
Anti-reductionist: We can trust testimony unless we have reason to distrust.
Counterpoint:
Our senses work to serve our interests. Others have their own interests.
One communicates with another to have an effect on them. Maybe this is benevolent, maybe it’s hostile.
Vigilance: on guard for interlocutors who don’t have our best interest at heart.
Analogy: we walk in a crowd without issue because everyone is vigiliant.
This would not be possible if we thought every stranger would completely ignore us.
So we need trust, but we are not paralyzed by consciously distrusting-by-default each stranger. The community vigilance is the solution.
How do we trust people without vigilance:
It’s possible, after all children do it.
However, at some point it will be in someone’s interest to deceive.
Communication is valuable because others are vigilant
There exist social costs to miscommunication / deception / cheating.
Descriptive questions too (not just normative)
What we do is close to the reductionist’s norm
Experimental psychology experiments
People encounter a new face and instantly look for trustworthiness
there is the least variation in ‘trustworthiness score’ (among other properties) when you vary the amount of time a subject has exposed to the picture
Children as young as 3 will trust the information from a ‘nice agent’ over a ’mean agent
However maybe life would be better if everyone trusted a littlee more (even if there were slight higher personal risks). Collective action problem.
Multiple independent sources of some belief reinforce strength of that belief.
Peer review system reflective of epistemic vigilance norms.
February 8, 2011.
Belief when you don’t have overwhelming evidence.
Something distinct from knowledge.
E.g. Faith in the goodness of humanity. Faith in the resurrection.
Two opinions: faith is a virtue, faith is intellectually irresponsible
What is the structure of the faith?
Recent interest in Paul:
Had a conversion from a persecutor of Christians. He doesn’t seek historical evidence for it.
After his revelation, he doesn’t go to Jerusalem, he goes into the desert.
He is not seeking prophetic evidence, yet it enables him to act in the world.
The structure of Paul’s faith is interesting. “Response to a call” as opposed to some concrete belief.
The formation of a self in relation to a call/ethical demand.
That call is going to motivate a self to act.
Relevance: there is a motivational deficit in liberal democracy, how to we remedy this?
The interesting part of religion is not whether their supernatural beliefs are true, rather how the call believers to action.
What sort of thing is commitment?
Something that is also touched upon in Existentialist philosophy too.
Moral athiests could deny that they take things on faith.
Critchley thinks ‘evangelical athiests’ (Dawkins/Hitchens).
Faith in reason, that science will work out the truths of the universe without participating.
In Sermon on the Mount, Jesus says to love your enemy and to have infinite forgiveness.
You can think Jesus was entitled to make these demands because he was God.
Alternatively he was just some crazy guy making extreme demands to prick people’s conscience.
Passive nihilism comes out of people being distanced/austerity towards moral commitment.
Reason/rationality cannot be divorced from processes like bureaucracy of modernity. Need faith / commitment to overcome sorts of bad rational processes.
How to choose the right commitment?
E.g. want to avoid becoming committed Nazis.
Commitment + generality/universality (Kantian)
Need practical moral philosophy to popularize something abstract like Kantian morality.
Friendship and Love
These require trust/faith (Othello example)
Friendship: Aristotelian vs Christian views
A liberal society based on reason would require a private/public separation
Anarchism has a variety of alternatives of new forms of order.
March 7, 2011.
What does “liberalism” refer to?
Used in such a wide variety of senses that it means almost nothing at all now.
Not useful to use the term to think about society or use as a normative concept
A historical approach to the term is valuable
The result of a large tradition of different components fusing together
After many things have fused together (by convenience) it looks like they come together by necessity
This makes the whole framework seem self-evident, which is convenient for your political system to have
E.g. democracy and liberalism seem like they belong together
liberalism has toleration as a core principle
democracy has no such commitment - you could vote to ostracize someone people don’t like.
democracy doesn’t like elections.
Another strand: voluntaryness better than force
Another strand: fear of concentrated power
Another strand: individual > group
Another strand: laissez faire capitalism
Two components of liberalism Geuss is worried about
Neutrality
There is no notion of ‘neutrality’ that is both weak enough to be a sensible notion as well as strong enough to do the normative job liberals want it to do
Neutrality itself cannot be a generator of political value
Consensus
It’s not that lack of consensus is good and it’s good to push people around
Rather, consensus must be treated as an empirical concept
As opposed to a ‘necessary condition of society’ - that’s not true
Making it this weak would be vacuous; would allow one to say “members of concentration camps were in a consensus with their guards, as they formed a social system”
Moving to a more realistic/empirical notion, e.g. everyone checking off the same box in the voting booth, this doesn’t have any normative power
There’s a feeling that every disagreement can be resolved to consensus.
It isn’t proven that it’s always possible, nor if it is possible that it’s good.
Kant argues that we have a natural tendency to overgeneralize from experience
E.g. We see things in our life have causes, and then think everything has a cause, which leads to the concept of God
Likewise, the belief that everything can be resolved by consensus fits this pattern.
This is part of the plausibility of liberalism:
I like to be free, I don’t like to be pushed around, I like us to be in consensus (this is fine)
Now jump to saying this can be done for the whole world
This can’t be taken for granted.
Is the above an accusation that liberalism is hypocritical?
E.g. America was based on consensus while nonconsensually displacing native americans.
Geuss:
‘hypocrisy’ is too strong of a term, which implies a conscious duplicitousness
Human beings are self-centered (we see ourselves as more central than we actually are, want to see ourselves as good) which is at odds with liberal ideal
Should we make incremental adjustments vs revolution to fix liberalism?
Geuss: keen on preserving our abilities to imagine utopias.
We can transform some of those aspirations into practical action.
There is a gap betweeen action and imagination.
Pragmatists eliminate that gap, ‘reduce’ imagination just to action.
Nothing wrong with aspirations that are not immediately realized - they can remain in the culture until they are realized.
So we can pursue both the immediate and more radical changes.
What role is there for art to play in developing our political imagination?
Escaping from politics is a kind of politics, after all
Escape because politics at the moment is intolerable/unworkable.
Two ways:
Political novels like Flaubert’s Salembot
descriptions of radically different worlds
having an imaginative picture of a particular world makes us relate to our own reality differently
Norm-breaking poetry, like Paul Celan:
Language rules are oppressive, conformist
Use words in different ways to break stifling forms of everyday speech
April 6, 2011.
Can a group of people do an action?
We regularly conjoin plural subjects with action verbs.
We have a desire to analyze the collective action purely into terms of the individual actions. This is a mistake - removes what is interesting about collective action.
Example: five people building a wall
Someone could say there is no more to this action than just the individuals laying bricks / cement.
This account gives no relations between the people doing the various actions
Example: swedish diplomat
Case 1: collective action
Want to talk to the diplomat, who is talking to someone else. Your teammate engages the other person, opening up the diplomat for you to sweep in.
Together you pull off the plan together
Case 2: no collective action
Same as above, except no coordination was planned with the teammate
It just happens that this other person started talking to the person talking to the diplomat, and you seize the opportunity.
It’s just one agent exploiting the actions of another agent.
The reduction of group actions to individual actions cannot distinguish the two cases.
One source of pressure that makes people (illegitimately) doubt the reality of collective action:
Cause by an intuitive (but bad) picture of how solitary action happens
A process that is caused by a psychological state
When we generalize this to groups, it requires us to postulate a group mind.
Laurence: this picture is bad because it presupposes the causality between action and mental states is like the causality between rocks bumping each other.
Different kinds of explanation ought be appropriate for talking about human action.
It lacks any reference to people’s purposes for acting.
Alternative
Slogan: acting together is acting with a common purpose.
E.g. bank robber is listening to a stethescope
We can ask why and get the answer “to crack the safe”
We can ask why is he cracking the safe and get the answer “because the robbers are robbing the bank”
Isn’t this circular?
All that was presupposed was that an intentional action with a plural subject is intelligible.
Proof: Laurence can articulate the difference between actions with plural subjects and plural agents
Why is the gunman holding the gun on the security guard? To immobilize him? Why? Because the robbers are robbing the bank.
What it means for the two actors to be acting together is that the “purposive explanations” of their actions unify at some point.
Ethical/political consequences
Individualistic picture of acting together can cause problems
E.g. understanding democratic reasoning in terms of a lone agent tries to satisfy his preferences will cause distortions
What goes missing is the notion of a shared purpose/mission
Will be difficult to reconstruct the group from the individual citizen’s purposes.
Situations where impermissible coercion is involved
“Jump through this hoop or else I’ll set your pants on fire”
Force used against free riders (e.g. taxation)
Without collective reasons, we end up with strong libertarian arguments that taxation is theft.
My response:
Why is the reduction to individuals ‘a mistake’? Agree that it’s not the only way to make sense of a collective action, e.g. I can think of a person as a person or as a collection of atoms. The existence of one (even one that is strictly ‘more fundamental’) doesn’t render other interpretations incorrect?
May 17, 2011
“How possible” questions
General form: X makes Y seem impossible, yet nevertheless Y is possible.
Can’t we just reject X because we take Y to be possible, which contradicts taking X seriously?
Y=“how is freedom possible?”
X = “we are chemical/physical beings”
“how is knowledge of the external world possible?”
X = skepticism “How do you know you’re not dreaming / in the Matrix?”
you don’t independently know that you’re not in the Matrix / brain in the vat, so how could you know that your hand is in front of you?
The skeptic has put an insuperable requirement for knowledge of the external world
Two possible replies:
Say the requirement is not genuine
More promising since requirements are usually designed to be unfulfillable (though they still are very compelling)
Challenge the word “independently”
challenging skeptic’s assumed notions of epistemic priority because you are accused of question begging if you say “I know I have a hand, so therefore I’m not a handless brain in a vat”
GE Moore strategy: argue from knowledge to knowledge rather from ignorance to ignorance.
Say we can satisfy the requirement
Sherlock Holmes meets you for the first time and says “ah I see you’re from NJ”. “how did sherlock holmes know this?”
X = “given that I didn’t do anything to reveal my origin”
Kant, ‘grandfather of how possible questions’ and inventor of trancendental arguments
How is mathematical knowledge possible? How is pure science possible?
For the former, Kant answers by drawing attention to how diagramatic reasoning is crucial.
One can respond to how diagrams (with, say, specific triangles) could prove general properties (e.g. about triangles in general) and Kant has a response.
He’s not asking from an epistemological perspective.
These are interesting b/c they are examples of synthetic a priori
How is that kind of knowledge possible? (given that it must be possible in virtue of mathematical knowledge existing)
X = “where does the knowledge come from if not experience nor analysis of concepts?”
Trancendental argument:
start off with assumption we have a certain experience, then try to find necessary conditions for us to have that experience
E.g. external world skeptics believe we have inner experience. Kant argues that outer experience is a necessary precondition for inner experience. Therefore we have knowledge of the external world.
This doesn’t answer the ‘how possible’ question. It shows that Y is true but does not dissolve the obstacle X. So again we have something that seems necessarily true that asserts something that’s possible is impossible. The skeptic has the upper hand since their arguments aren’t as abstract / untrustworthy.
But it’s not like Kant thinks his trancendental arguments were designed to answer his ‘how possible’ questions (some commentators make the mistake of assuming this).
June 21, 2011.
Is hearing emotion in music a purely cultural convention?
Distinguish two quesitions
Whether culture has impact on the perceptual states from hearing pieces of music
Whether on a partiuclar occasion of hearing music, the perception depends on cultural
The perception being dependent on cultural factors doesn’t mean it can’t be considered perceptual
E.g. language (clearly culture-dependent) where the words perceived have meanings
E.g. you hear/perceive “snow” as meaning (the explanation why that in particular is the case involves culture) but the perception itself is not cultural.
With music, it’s not interesting to trace the causal origins of the perceptual state but the nature of the perceptual state itself / what it is for it to have emotional content.
Three fundamental different experiences
See something a certain way (see an apple as an apple)
See something as a representation of something else (picture of an apple)
“Metaphorical seen-as”
“Juliet is the sun” - linguistic metaphors are just a specific instance of a general mental state of metaphorical thinking.
Others attempts to reduce this type of thinking to other kinds of mental states unsatisfactory.
Music Examples:
Des Prex, Ave Maria: lyrics involve “universe filling up gladness”, and you hear the music as filling up space.
Debussy,L’Voiles or Le catedrale engloutie: can perceive the fluttering sails and sinking cathedral.
Distinction between imagining X as Y and phenomonologically perceiving X as Y (example of Still life with pots (Zurbarán) that you really directly see as people, vs forcing yourself to imagine four things on the table as people).
Phenomologically distinct from actually thinking the pots are people or even depictions of people.
Explanation of this
“isomorphism” (Kris: actually should just be (homo)morphism)
Basically an analogy.
Changes in pitch and speed map onto changes in speed of the wind.
There are tons of these that are possible, but not all are “psychologically real”
Minor chord has negative affect due to its relation to major chord.
Why is it this emotion rather than some other is an empirical question
Mozart B minor adagio extremely moving … why? that’s an empirical question (great composers have a good intuition for this).
Great music critics are able to pick out and articulate these - after hearing this it changes how you perceive the music.
Example: end of schubert piece “you can hear the body slipping into the water”
How is this related to hearing a piece of music as a certain genre?
“Romantic music is very expressive”
Problems
Other music just ‘describes’ emotions rather than expresses them
Yet much medieval music also is clearly expressive.
Positive account of how to characterize romantic music
There are expressive actions
Not described in the thought/belief model where we do actions towards some end / for some benefit. E.g. jump for joy.
There are actions we perceive as expressive.
Romantic music is perceived as expressive, and breaking classical conventions in order to express this emotion.
Allows one to not purely be defined as breaking conventions (otherwise you’d include impressionism, etc.)
Impressionist music is not perceived as expressive action.
July 18, 2011.
What does “conversational context” mean?
The situation in which a discourse takes place. Not just surrounding material but also the attitudes of the speakers, their interests, the point of what they’re trying to say, etc.
E.g. “everyone has arrived” or “there’s no beer”
The context constrains “everyone who was invited” / “no beer in the fridge”
Can we make everything explicit?
To make things explicit you draw from the context you are in
It’s an illusion to think we can speak “purely”
It’s essential for us to draw on info that is salient to the person we talk to
A big question for theorists: how is what is said in a statement dependent on context?
Under what possible worlds / conditions is what you say true?
Information conveyed by a statement is the exclusion of possible worlds.
“The cup is on the table” rules out the set of worlds in which the cup is under the table, etc.
If the cup gets moved, the three people in the room know both that it was moved and that the three people all know this fact, so it can then be taken for granted / it becomes part of the context.
If I respond to “everyone’s here” with “really? the queen is here?” that means I have included a possible world that the speaker had already ruled out.
A defective / mismatched context
So the possible worlds are used in multiple places
I say “he is over there” and you need to know what possible worlds are available as context to know who I refer to (suppose it’s John), but also now that you know that it affects the meaning what I’m saying (it rules out worlds wheree John is somewhere else)
The information content of the sentence is not just contained in the sentence itself. We can’t just isolate the context-dependent components by picking out indexicals.
Set of problems in philosophy: “essentially indexical belief”
Know objective facts but can’t locate oneself w/r/t to those facts
“I know I’m here” but I don’t know where here is.
There are thoughts that we can only have using indexicals (meaning changes when substituted).
“Frege problems”
When the same thing is named in two different ways. E.g. Hespherus and Phosphorus.
It was an empirical discovery that these two names named the same thing. Knowing that fact changes the meanings of sentences, even without indexicals.
Science gives you language for talking about a way for talking about the world in a fairly objective way, but there are still named terms that get their reference via naming processes.
Worry about realism. Is there something anti-realist about this kind of contextualism?
We can talk about the world only by connecting ourselves to it.
That’s no threat to the fact we are stating objective truths/falsehoods.
We can distinguish between the possible worlds with our contexts and be objectively right or wrong.
Use case of contextualism
Contextual theories can be used to address skeptical claims (“to know” is context dependent)
In politically contested discourse, context can be deliberately exploited to manipulate / control the discourse.
Radical contextualism gives us a means of knowing how to gain clarification in these situations.
September 8, 2011.
What is altruism
“pure altruism” Help to someone else at some cost to self
(distinct from reciprocal altruism: done with expectation of return)
Is the tendency to behave altrusitically was evolved?
Other animals act in benefit for kin
E.g. bird lures predator away from nest to protect her offspring
We have genetic disposition to protect our genes (even if not done on conscious level)
Human altruism is also an effect that is amplified for kin
We have urge to protect an unknown child
Perhaps we are just pattern matching (consciously or unconsciously) off of our altruism for offspring.
You see a burning building and a person inside it
It’s your daughter - you rush in without thinking (and societally judged as moral behavior)
It’s your neighbor - you call the fire department (societally judged as moral behavior)
This is very distinct from Kantian moral behavior which would judge the scenarios as roughly equal.
(this is not a good model of how we actually behave)
Evidence that this behavior can be explained via evolution
Humans are evolved animals and thus behavior can often be successfully explained via evolutionary biology (human moral behavior no different in this regard)
However, altruistic behavior seems to be taught. Would this mean it’s not evolutionary?
There’s a learning component (like language, but we would never use the fact that it’s learned to argue that the capacity / faculty for it isn’t innate)
After all, different cultures have different moral systems
But there is extraordinary similarity among all cultures, indictative as a common starting point
E.g. Act to help your own kin
Similar to facial expressions corresponding to certain motions being similar across different cultures
The moral “grammar” is there from evolution but we have to learn the semantics of that grammar and how to apply the rules.
Example of what concretely do we have to learn to be altruistic?
We have to learn who are our kin?
We have to learn what is helpful vs harmful (e.g. that the doctor sticking needles in is not harming your child)
We have to learn to share as children (but children learn this remarkably easily)
Can human ethical behavior be justified by the fact it was evolved?
No. Actual human norms for moral discourse/justification are needed to justify actions morally
To say “I shot the intruder because I evolved to act that way” would not be a socially acceptable justification
Evolutionary theory is used to explain what those norms are. (E.g. “why is it that ‘I was doing it to be altruistic’ is successful in justifying behavior to other humans?)
Are morals all contingent based on the influence of evolution (rather than coming from pure reason)
“It’s just the type of people we are”
Used to justify thinking of the world in causal terms (Kant says we simply are not capable of doing otherwise)
Evolutionary biology gives explanation (ancestors who didn’t think tigers were causally connected would get eaten)
Likewise for altruism as a first principle, it can be justified by this line
Evolutionary theory provides further explanation of why that’s the case, arguments for how it increased fitness + heritability.
It’s not contingent if it is who we are / we have a certain nature
How to respond of general criticism of evolutionary psychology as not rigorous/testible?
In any scientific domain there will be theories that are adequately justified or not
Justified empirical support for things in the domain of evolutionary psychology
Instinctive behavior can be inherited
Ducks have instictive mating dances, breed ducks and get hybrid dances (no one teaching)
Developmental studies
Sequence of things learned are constant (e.g. in language we learn simple nouns first, then add X, Y, forming complex sentences, etc.
As a species we do well at altruism in small groups and get worse and worse as our groups which are large
That’s who we are. Should we go ‘beyond’ how we evolved to be better?
Treating kin well and more distant things worse is a constant from who we are.
We severely mistreat others when we treat the other tribal group as “the other”/“not us”/inhuman.
We become better behaved when we use our cultural knowledge / rational faculties to see that the other tribe isn’t so different from us after all.
April 9, 2012
Moral realism - moral claims are objectively true or false
Morals are objects of belief (things out there)
E.g. courage is a virtue / justice is a virtue
Moral disagreement is possible between individuals and across cultures (no moral relativism in that sense)
Question KS is interested:
what are the implications of moral reason
But moral disagreement makes people think moral realism is false.
If it were true, then we’d converge on the truth like science.
But it’s unclear why one would think moral facts would make people converge on a solution.
Also historically, we had long periods of time where you’d look back and not see convergence (e.g. whether world was flat or not). By analogy, perhaps we are doing that with in morality.
It’s rather about how we can be justified to believe moral truths that would make you expect
But moral disagreements persist.
Even if we imagined knowing all the possible ‘scientific facts’
Sidestep with two moves
Shift from disagreements about morality to ethics (more broad: like “how to live”)
There are cases of philosophers who’ve held diametrically opposed views for millennia
E.g. Selfishness vs altruism
“If your views are true and confront with others who views are false, you should stick to your guns.”
In discussions of disagreement, we have a view “the equal weight view”
You should give others’ views equal weight to your own without a prior reason to discount their beliefs
Leads to skepticism.
But it’s not plausible because (argument of Tom Kelly)
It has you reason as if your only prior is how much you were likely to be right.
Nonmoral example:
weather prediction example
Equal weight view IS reasonable for perceptual experiences (this is where it gets its power from). The problem is philosophers who liken moral intuitions to perceptual appearances.
What is the alternative in the non-perceptual cases
Problematic alternative:
Keep the belief that moral beliefs bottom out in perceptual intuitions.
But relativize people’s intuitions (break asymmetry by saying opponent has bad intuitions or that morality’s purpose is to provide coherence of just your beliefs)
However, this is epistemic egoism.
Better alternative:
There is an asymmetry in the standard of justification of moral beliefs: true beliefs have better evidence for them.
Coherentists/reflective equilibrium etc. want to find a standard of justification that is independent of taking a stance on particular moral beliefs.
???
Knowing all nonmoral facts doesn’t help you resolve moral facts.
March 28, 2013.
Conflict between epistemic and objective notions of probability
In the former, to express a claim about a coin toss having a 50% chance of being heads is to make a claim about a rational being’s own knowledge, among other things.
Intuitively, we’d prefer to just say probability is a fact in the world, about a given chance mechanism.
However, we often harbor metaphysical notions of determinism: i.e. with full information before the toss (placement of coin in the hand, facts about the coin-tossers brain, etc.), we could deduce the outcome of the toss.
This makes us believe that, objectively, the coin toss result being heads is either 0 or 1. In general, there would be no non-extreme probabilities, which is at odds with what makes probability theory useful.
Therefore, the desire to not step on determinism’s toes historically has led to a dominance of epistemic notions of probability.
Why not just submit to epistemic notion?
it would be remarkable if the ordinary claim that a coin toss is fair were covertly a commentary on one’s own ignorance.
analogy: whether or not we are justified in believing something depends on our epistemic relation to the world. However, this doesn’t mean that the content of all our beliefs makes reference to our epistemic state.
But still, we then have to explain how to reconcile objective probability with determinism.
Conflict between determinism and objective probability is an illusion due to a misconception about the content of judgments of probability. The misconception:
Judgments of deduction viewed as just an extreme judgment of probability (where deduced judgments have probability 1).
All beliefs have an associated credence and full belief is merely a special case when that value is 1.
Example: “all balls in the urn are black, draw a ball, that ball will be black” is just a special case with p=1 in “fraction p of the balls in the urn are black, draw a ball, it has probability p of being black”
The 10-coin toss example below will show why the former is not special case of the latter, as the latter has a certain ambiguity.
Unambiguous statement “10 coins are drawn, 5 of which are heads”
If asked to compute the probability of it, we can do a calculation, but we’re implicitly assuming some extra structure because the question is ambiguous.
You get a different answer if we are informed the 10 coin tosses arose in the context of a different experiment: “toss the coin repeatedly until you get 5 heads in a row”.
Before we assumed the experiment was that the coin would be tossed 10 times and then experiment would stop. This is just a different modal assumption, but both interpretations are consistent with the factual statement in the problem.
We can’t asses probability of a proposition until we embed it in a modal structure.
The content of probability judgments are not propositional contents, but rather propositions embedded in some procedural context.
They are not the types of things we can arrive at by deduction.
Thus, probabilitic reasoning and deduction are distinct modes of inference.
Observing the coin is heads after the fact is no argument against the purportedly probabilistic nature of the coin toss.
The reason why it’s not a good idea to bet against Laplace’s Demon is not because the world has only objectively only extremal probability, but because the demon is not using probabilistic reasoning at all (he might as well be looking at the coin after the fact - he doesn’t have to asses s probabilities at all).
Like playing poker against an opponent with x-ray vision should not make us believe objective probability does not exist.
Upshots
Theoretical study of objective probabilities is back on the table.
relationship between inductive and deductive logic
E.g. carnap’s inductive logics have a language with play a role of setting up a procedural context in which it makes sense to ask for probabilities.
Language does not take such a role in deductive contexts.
E.g. a first order logic / deductive languages. If we make elementary statements more specific, the deductive relations will not change, but in an inductive language the probabilities may change dramatically.
What sentences to pick as elementary or basic is more important in an inductive language